Comment 109728

By Wronger (anonymous) | Posted February 25, 2015 at 16:36:19 in reply to Comment 109727

This is one of the goofy fallacies promoted here. Drivers don;t pay all the costs of roads, but that does not mean that they don't pay more than other.

Let me do some arithmetic for you.

Say you have five people. Four drive. One doesn’t. (Assume the drivers all use the roads equally)
They all pay the same income and sales taxes. But the four drivers also pay a fee to use the roads. That fee covers 90% of the cost of the roads. That means that the non-driver pays 1/5 of 10% of the road costs or 2%. Sounds unfair. Why is he paying anything?

Say the roads contribute 25% to the economy. In other words, 25 percent of the income of each of the five is directly attributable to the existence of the roads. Each of the five pays 2% of the costs of the roads for a total of 10%. So they get 25% of their income each for2%. The drivers pay 90% of the balance through a fee but the fifth pays no more for the extra 23% of his income he derives from the roads.

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