Comment 29251

By reuben (registered) - website | Posted March 03, 2009 at 13:34:24

A Smith >> "In fact, since 1980, when the top 1% only paid 19.05% of income taxes and the bottom 50% paid 7.05%, the income disparity has widened considerably. Therefore, having the rich carry a larger share of the tax burden has only made the average person fall behind, not better off as the government is attempting to do."

you see A Smith, you continually twist statistics to fit your causational statements. the above statement could easily be flipped, saying that the tax rates change BECAUSE the income gap increased. the facts as presented do not state that one caused the other.

A Smith >> "As you can see, from 1993 until 2000, government involvement in the economy shrank and the larger private sector economy produced excellent growth numbers. From 2000 until now, government has undertaken a much bigger role, increasing spending on new drug benefits, bailouts for mismanaged banks, etc, and the result has been a SMALLER private sector, and much lower rates of economic growth. Those are the facts, jack."

as i see it, government involvement in the economy grew at the same time the private sector shrank -- but one did not cause the other. there are just way too many other factors involved to draw such a quick and easy conclusion by cherry picking facts and linking them together.

however, this has been pointed out to you before, but i do not believe you have ever presented more stats and facts that prove a causation.

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